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Topic: Playing Through Two Amps |
Billy Henderson
From:
Portland, AR, USA
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Posted 20 Feb 2004 7:25 pm |
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I want to play through two Nashville 400's with delay pedal but don't know how to connect them. Appreciate your help.
Thanks |
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Tom Stolaski
From:
Huntsville, AL, USA
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Posted 21 Feb 2004 8:55 am
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| I play through two Nashville 400's. I run my effects through one and my steel direct into the other. I try to get a nice balance between the two. When I mic my amps I usually just mic the dry amp and use the effects amp for my own enjoyment on stage. |
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Emmett Roch
From:
Texas Hill Country
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Posted 21 Feb 2004 9:02 am
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| Back when I played through two N400's, the last effect in my chain was a stereo chorus, and the signal went to each amp from there. |
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Erv Niehaus
From:
Litchfield, MN, USA
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Posted 21 Feb 2004 9:14 am
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Billy,
All you need is a pedal with two outputs. Just run each output to a 400. Or just even a Y splitter would work. Or even an A-B box.
Erv |
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Jerry Roller
From:
Van Buren, Arkansas USA
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Posted 21 Feb 2004 9:22 am
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Billy, you can run from the effects pedal to the input of one of the amps and another cord from the second input of the first amp to the input of the second amp. Works as good as any other way.
Jerry |
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Eric West
From:
Portland, Oregon, USA, R.I.P.
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Posted 21 Feb 2004 11:28 am
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Yup. What Jerry said.
You can also put the delay between the two amps, and either mike both, or the one without effects, or the one with.
Like he said, just run a line from input #2 of the amp coming off your pedal to input #1 of your second amp.
Easy deal.
EJL |
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David Doggett
From:
Bawl'mer, MD (formerly of MS, Nawluns, Gnashville, Knocksville, Lost Angeles, Bahsten. and Philly)
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Posted 21 Feb 2004 9:29 pm
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| This may seem like a silly question, but if you go to two amps from the two outlets of the volume pedal, are the two signals weaker than one would be? If not, why? Seems like that would be getting something for nothing. |
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Eric West
From:
Portland, Oregon, USA, R.I.P.
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Posted 21 Feb 2004 11:17 pm
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You know, I'd guess they'd have to be decreased by half. Adding parallel lights to a DC OR AC ( like a pickup) circuit will increase the draw on the "generator", or in this case the pickups. In parallel, they will decrease the current equally per device. In series it is more complicated.
They will draw the maximum amount of current available out of the power source, and burn no brighter than either the ampacity of fused conductors, OR the total available power of the power source.
The pickups in this case are the generating source.
Maybe your pickups would get Hot if you added too many amps..
(..burp....)
I think I"m going to try it!
EJL
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Jerry Roller
From:
Van Buren, Arkansas USA
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Posted 21 Feb 2004 11:32 pm
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David, I can't answer that question either but I can tell you it will make no difference to you because it will work fine and you will not know if the power was cut.
If you are cutting the current you are building it back with two amps instead of one so nothing is lost.
Jerry |
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Eric West
From:
Portland, Oregon, USA, R.I.P.
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Jerry Roller
From:
Van Buren, Arkansas USA
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Posted 22 Feb 2004 9:28 am
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Eric, I am glad the question was not concerning the use of 10 amps, but with two amps of course there is no problem. On the other hand if you run a faint signal into 10 amps each one amplifying the signal I am not sure you lost a thing. Probably gained. We don't have to know all that stuff to play it anyway.
Jerry |
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David Doggett
From:
Bawl'mer, MD (formerly of MS, Nawluns, Gnashville, Knocksville, Lost Angeles, Bahsten. and Philly)
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Posted 22 Feb 2004 9:40 am
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| I think this is a question for Mr. Hilton. If the output drops by half going to two amps, obviously the two amps will double the final output, so you've lost nothing. Except now you are requiring two amps to get the sound of one. What would be the point of that? It doesn't seem to work that way, that's what got me wondering. |
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Brian Wetzstein
From:
Billings, MT, USA
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Posted 22 Feb 2004 1:21 pm
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I would also like to know the answer to this. I usually keep my tuner plugged in to the second output of my goodrich pedal. I don't think I have ever played without it plugged in..
brian |
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Vernon Hester
From:
Cayce,SC USA, R.I.P.
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Posted 23 Feb 2004 3:43 am
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I just did some test with your queston about signal into 2 amps or devices.
Set My Pedal with 275K of resistance a little over half on. with one chn into a H-imp mixer 2.7 mv. 2 chs 1.4 mv or apox 3db. So we are looking at some lost signal but the average person cannot tell the difference of 3db. Run a test with some good test equiment. I stroke the "E" string on Bill Lawrence 710 for this test. Using a true RMS digital meter.
Best.
Vern |
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David Doggett
From:
Bawl'mer, MD (formerly of MS, Nawluns, Gnashville, Knocksville, Lost Angeles, Bahsten. and Philly)
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Posted 23 Feb 2004 10:54 am
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So, Vernon, the signal went from 2.7 mV into one amp to 1.4 mV into each of two amps. That does seem to halve the input signal. I'm not sure what the 3db drop means. Are you measuring the dbs from the speaker, or what? One db is the smallest sound increment noticeable by humans. That's how the unit was derived. So 3 db would be noticeable.
Okay, say you run only one amp from the volume pedal, and run the second amp from the second input jack of the first amp. Does that also cut the signal to the two amps in half?
But here's my puzzlement. Cutting each input by half should be exactly restored by having two amps. There would be no overall loss or gain in volume. But that's not what seems to happen. You get much more volume from two amps. What am I missing? |
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b0b
From:
Cloverdale, CA, USA
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Posted 23 Feb 2004 11:08 am
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| Moved to Electronics section [This message was edited by b0b on 23 February 2004 at 11:08 AM.] |
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