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Post new topic "Make The World Go Away" ii or IV?
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Author Topic:  "Make The World Go Away" ii or IV?
Lee Baucum


From:
McAllen, Texas (Extreme South) The Final Frontier
Post  Posted 4 Dec 2011 2:53 pm    
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We played for a 50-year high school reunion this weekend. During set-up and sound check, a gentleman asked if he could sing a few songs at their reunion. He had a very good voice and did a great job.

When we rehearsed "Make The World Go Away", I noticed he was going from the I to the IV chord on the chorus. I've always heard (and played) a ii chord instead of the IV chord. We followed his chord chart and moved on. It sure didn't sound right, though... Oh Well
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Barry Blackwood


Post  Posted 4 Dec 2011 3:06 pm    
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Every band I can recall playing in went to the 2m. Oh Well
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Merle Record

 

From:
Oxford, Maine, USA
Post  Posted 4 Dec 2011 3:22 pm    
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The way I hear it I would play a 2m but since the next chord is a 5 it really could be a 2m7. Playing a 4 over a 2m7 should sound fine as all of the notes in a 4 are in a 2m7. A 4 is missing the root of a 2m7 but with the bass covering that KABLAM you've got a perfect 2m7. Merle
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Kevin Hatton

 

From:
Buffalo, N.Y.
Post  Posted 4 Dec 2011 11:06 pm    
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It's definitely II minor. It's funny when people do that.
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Jack Stoner


From:
Kansas City, MO
Post  Posted 5 Dec 2011 2:58 am    
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In sheet music it's a II chord. I've played it both ways, as a II and as a IVm.

Every band I've been in this has been an issue, whether to use a IIm or a IV (*corrected - I knew what I wanted to say but reversed it).

There is only one note different between a II and IVm chord.


Last edited by Jack Stoner on 5 Dec 2011 10:20 am; edited 1 time in total
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Barry Blackwood


Post  Posted 5 Dec 2011 7:29 am    
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This sheet music says it's a 2m in the chorus, however, most bands I've ever played in also used a 2m in the verses as well, which seems to differ from the sheet music.

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Don Sulesky


From:
Citrus County, FL, Orig. from MA & NH
Post  Posted 5 Dec 2011 9:24 am    
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I believe you mean the difference between a IIm and a IV chord. Not the other way around.
A IVm has a flat in it. In this case a IVm would be Fm.
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Barry Blackwood


Post  Posted 5 Dec 2011 10:47 am    
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No, I mean we would play the verses as IIm V I, IIm V I. Actually, same progression as the chorus...

Last edited by Barry Blackwood on 5 Dec 2011 10:56 am; edited 1 time in total
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Bo Borland


From:
South Jersey -
Post  Posted 5 Dec 2011 10:56 am    
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If it's sung like the original it's a 2m.

When I do the solo I always too a 6m passing chord in the chorus, between the 1 and 2m
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Chris Caruso


From:
Merrimack, NH USA
Post  Posted 5 Dec 2011 4:47 pm    
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I'm a bass player. On the chorus I use a II. On the verse I go from I to IV.
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Barry Blackwood


Post  Posted 6 Dec 2011 7:40 am    
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I just listened to both the Price and Eddie Arnold (original) versions on Youtube and didn't hear the bass play a IV anywhere in either song. Oh Well There's no law against playing one, I'm just saying if you do, you are not playing it correctly if you are trying to copy the original.
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Chris Caruso


From:
Merrimack, NH USA
Post  Posted 6 Dec 2011 7:54 am    
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Oops! I meant 1 to 5 chord on the verse!
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